shuffleshuff

6 ms·

1. 1.▲
   by shuffleshuff 13y ago

   > More likely, the Incan slave/poor populace was split and easily co-opted by the Spaniards. Why is this either/or? The above statement is undoubtedly true, but that doesn't mean what I said is false. The problem, is, as y
2. 2.▲
   by shuffleshuff 13y ago

   "Incan society" is a bit of a misnomer. "Inca" refers to either the ethnic group, or the ruler of the empire (so "Manco Inca" is roughly "King Inca"). About 100 years before contact with the Spanish,
3. 3.▲
   by shuffleshuff 13y ago

   It was a siege of a well-fortified town, and the Spanish had non-negligible support from non-Incan people unsatisfied with the Incan rule. That said, a Spaniard on a thousand pound horse, wrapped in steel, on an open, unobstructed field, ag