oskaralund

6 ms·

1. 1.▲
   by oskaralund 1y ago

   I'm not making the case that it is possible to make measurements with infinite precision. I'm making the case that the argument "It is not possible to make measurements with infinite precision, therefore we cannot tell if we
2. 2.▲
   by oskaralund 1y ago

   The example was only to illustrate that measurement precision is independent of the time it takes to perform the measurement.
3. 3.▲
   by oskaralund 1y ago

   I don't think time and measurement precision are necessarily related in that way. You can measure weight with increased precision by using a more precise scale, without increasing the time it takes to do the measurement.
4. 4.▲
   by oskaralund 1y ago

   This argument feels like it's assuming the conclusion. If in principle it is only possible to measure quantities to finite precision, then it follows logically that we couldn't tell the difference between a rational and real unive
5. 5.▲
   by oskaralund 1y ago

   Saying that two sets have the same cardinality is equivalent to saying there is a bijection between them. I don't understand how the latter can be useful but not the former?
6. 6.▲
   AGI and Mental Causation(oskaralund.substack.com)

   1 points by oskaralund 3y ago|0 comments