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If a party gets 44% of the vote, they are not "far-" anything, by definition. They are well within the overton window of what people find acceptable.
by eudamoniac 9d ago
If a party gets 44% of the vote, they are not "far-" anything, by definition. They are well within the overton window of what people find acceptable.
- Arodex 9d agoAdolf Hitler and the Nazi party got 43.9% at the 1933 federal election. By the way, you've got egg on your face.
- eudamoniac 9d agoAt the time they were not far right/left though. We are applying that label in hindsight compared to present day politics. It doesn't make much sense to call the mainstream right far right. If they get in power and hold it for 50 years democratically, they obviously don't remain far right, they would just be what "the right" is. I argue that when they become more popular than "the right" they automatically take that moniker and lose the "far" label. We have to anchor the center somewhere for the labels to have meaning; anchoring it to some point that is not the average/typical view needs heavy justification. Maybe we can say afd is still far right today, using some trailing average, but eventually if they remain popular we'd have to admit they're just the right.
- Arodex 9d ago>At the time they were not far right/left though. We are applying that label in hindsight compared to present day politics. Oh my god, man, how much of a know-nothing are you? And how do you expect your lies to get a pass when I know about that period?
- eudamoniac 8d agoOk, thanks for denying part of my post with no evidence or argument and ignoring the central point. You could have saved some time by just writing "nah bro".
- Arodex 8d agoEvidence or argument that the Nazi were "far-right" during the interwar period, and that it isn't a modern categorization: basic knowledge of History. Where did the Nazi sit in the Reichsrat? And the Italian fascists in the Italian Parliament ? And the French fascists?