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If they’ve already told you that they’re recording, hasn’t consent already been established? You don’t need to ask again. It’s not like they’ve gotten consent f
by StackRanker3000 2y ago
If they’ve already told you that they’re recording, hasn’t consent already been established? You don’t need to ask again. It’s not like they’ve gotten consent for themselves to record, but not you.
- nkozyra 2y agoMy understanding is that intent needs to be established for any recording. If you establish consent and the second party records without consent I'm not sure where that stands but the spirit of the law seems to suggest every party must consent to every recording.
- dghlsakjg 2y ago"This call may be recorded..." They don't specify that it may not be you that records it. They are consenting.
- nkozyra 2y ago> They don't specify that it may not be you that records it. They are consenting. My - not a lawyer - understanding of consent laws is they're tied somewhat to privacy expectation laws. If I tell you I am recording you, your expectation of privacy is lessened. But mine isn't, necessarily, because I control the recording and its potential dissemination.
- dghlsakjg 2y agoThey aren't telling you that they are recording. The exact phrasing is normally, "This call may be recorded", not "X Corp may be recording this call" The former can be interpreted as explicit consent to record the call, after all they provided the consent, but you actually haven't.
- nkozyra 2y ago> They aren't telling you that they are recording Right but that's less important than telling the other party that anyone might be recorded. Because, again, spirit of the law, it loosens expectations of privacy. Given there are only two parties on the call, only one needs their consent solicited anyway.