7 ms·
This is exactly what I wrote about in my second paragraph, isn't it? The intended meaning is not clear, because this definition again makes the set of naturals
by ComplexSystems 3y ago
This is exactly what I wrote about in my second paragraph, isn't it? The intended meaning is not clear, because this definition again makes the set of naturals the same size as the set of squares.
> On the other hand, we can say that although {A,B,C} is not equal to any proper subset of {1,2,3,4}, it is in bijection with a proper subset, such as {1,2,3}. Although this is true, if we use this definition of "the same size as," we again get that the naturals are "the same size as" the set of all squares.
- bheadmaster 3y agoAh, I see. I have't read your comment properly, I guess. That's a fair point, it really seems that comparing sets in general only makes sense in terms of bijections, which makes infinite sets as comparable as finite sets.