11 ms·

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Impostor_syndrome https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Impostor_syndrome "... five subgroups this syndrome often falls into. - The perf

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Impostor_syndrome https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Impostor_syndrome "... five subgroups this syndrome often falls into. - The perfectionist - The superwoman/man - The natural genius - The soloist - The expert"

P-ala-din 6y ago
"While early research focused on the prevalence among high-achieving women, impostor syndrome has been recognized to affect both men and women equally." "The researchers concluded that the women who participated in this study experienced impostor phenomenon more so than the men who participated." am I misparsing this sentence? how can both be true?
- dragonwriter 6y ago
  The first is characterizing a broad collection of research findings since the early identification of the phenomenon, the other the particular survey.
  - P-ala-din 6y ago
    so which one is wrong?
    - dragonwriter 6y ago
      Neither is necessarily wrong, as they have a different universe of analysis.
      - P-ala-din 6y ago
        the way I parsed the question made it seem that they are incompatible. hence why I asked. it's my bad because I didn't explain myself. I understood the first sentence to be saying that the proportion of men experiencing "imposter's syndrome" is the equal to the proportion of woman experiencing it. I understood The second sentence to say that a higher proportion of women experience it. To my understanding, it's not possible for these two statements to be true at the same time. So one must be wrong.
    - xapata 6y ago
      "Not all foo are bar." "This foo is bar." Both statements can be true simultaneously.
      - P-ala-din 6y ago
        Of course, that's true but I can't map that to the statements at hand. I understood it to be: P(W) == P(M) and P(W) > P(M)
        deleted 6y ago
        [deleted]
        torstenvl 6y ago
        "P(W) == P(M)" is not supported by the statement. More like "P(W), but also P(M)"
        xapata 6y ago
        "In one study" means "In a particular sample." A sample does not always share the same characteristics as the population.
        P-ala-din 6y ago
        if a study can't be replicated then the study is wrong isn't it? either the sample was too small, they got unlucky or the result is stated too generally.
        xapata 6y ago
        > if a study can't be replicated then the study is wrong isn't it? Not necessarily. Maybe the replications were flawed. Characteristics of a population can change over time. Blah, blah, blah. It's incredibly hard to say something is flat wrong or absolutely correct. A good scientist uses what others might call "weasel" words (I hate that term), like, "The data is (in)consistent with the hypothesis." The more evidence that mounts for or against a hypothesis, well, it's up to you to decide how to act.
  - deleted 6y ago
    [deleted]
- bradjohnson 6y ago
  I may be wrong because it is worded unclearly, but I think the first is referring to the magnitude by which men and women are affected, i.e. those that are affected, be they men or women, experience the same impact to their self esteem/worth. The second is referring to the fact that women are more frequently affected by it.
  - P-ala-din 6y ago
    That makes sense, thanks. I was misled by the use of "prevalence" in the first part of the sentence.
    - mattkrause 6y ago
      In this context, prevalence means something like "the proportion of affected people in some group." Men and women could be equally likely to develop some form of imposter syndrome (thus, equal prevalence), but the women could be more severely affected (scores of, say, 5 vs. 3 on some kind of test or questionnaire).
      - P-ala-din 6y ago
        yeah, the definition of prevalence is clear to me. but it's the other way around. Men and women are affected with the same severity but women are more likely to develop it. ( or at least that's what I understood from bradjohnson's comment).
        mattkrause 6y ago
        No, I don't think that's a correct interpretation: if women are more likely to develop it, then the prevalence isn't equal. Affect and prevalence just focus on rates, not severity. I can only see two ways to make both statements consistent: - Men and women are both likely to have an general 'diagnosis' of imposter syndrome, but women experience more 'acute attacks' of it per unit time. Half of of men and women feel like imposters during a year, but the affected women feel that way twice a week, while the affected men feel it once/week. - Women experience it more severely than men: a male colonel feels like a lt. colonel, but a female colonel feels like a major) Could be some combination of the two...or the writing is just a mess!
mprovost 6y ago
See also https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect

P-ala-din 6y ago

"While early research focused on the prevalence among high-achieving women, impostor syndrome has been recognized to affect both men and women equally." "The researchers concluded that the women who participated in this study experienced impostor phenomenon more so than the men who participated." am I misparsing this sentence? how can both be true?

dragonwriter 6y ago
The first is characterizing a broad collection of research findings since the early identification of the phenomenon, the other the particular survey.
- P-ala-din 6y ago
  so which one is wrong?
  - dragonwriter 6y ago
    Neither is necessarily wrong, as they have a different universe of analysis.
    - P-ala-din 6y ago
      the way I parsed the question made it seem that they are incompatible. hence why I asked. it's my bad because I didn't explain myself. I understood the first sentence to be saying that the proportion of men experiencing "imposter's syndrome" is the equal to the proportion of woman experiencing it. I understood The second sentence to say that a higher proportion of women experience it. To my understanding, it's not possible for these two statements to be true at the same time. So one must be wrong.
  - xapata 6y ago
    "Not all foo are bar." "This foo is bar." Both statements can be true simultaneously.
    - P-ala-din 6y ago
      Of course, that's true but I can't map that to the statements at hand. I understood it to be: P(W) == P(M) and P(W) > P(M)
      - deleted 6y ago
        [deleted]
      - torstenvl 6y ago
        "P(W) == P(M)" is not supported by the statement. More like "P(W), but also P(M)"
      - xapata 6y ago
        "In one study" means "In a particular sample." A sample does not always share the same characteristics as the population.
        P-ala-din 6y ago
        if a study can't be replicated then the study is wrong isn't it? either the sample was too small, they got unlucky or the result is stated too generally.
        xapata 6y ago
        > if a study can't be replicated then the study is wrong isn't it? Not necessarily. Maybe the replications were flawed. Characteristics of a population can change over time. Blah, blah, blah. It's incredibly hard to say something is flat wrong or absolutely correct. A good scientist uses what others might call "weasel" words (I hate that term), like, "The data is (in)consistent with the hypothesis." The more evidence that mounts for or against a hypothesis, well, it's up to you to decide how to act.
- deleted 6y ago
  [deleted]
bradjohnson 6y ago
I may be wrong because it is worded unclearly, but I think the first is referring to the magnitude by which men and women are affected, i.e. those that are affected, be they men or women, experience the same impact to their self esteem/worth. The second is referring to the fact that women are more frequently affected by it.
- P-ala-din 6y ago
  That makes sense, thanks. I was misled by the use of "prevalence" in the first part of the sentence.
  - mattkrause 6y ago
    In this context, prevalence means something like "the proportion of affected people in some group." Men and women could be equally likely to develop some form of imposter syndrome (thus, equal prevalence), but the women could be more severely affected (scores of, say, 5 vs. 3 on some kind of test or questionnaire).
    - P-ala-din 6y ago
      yeah, the definition of prevalence is clear to me. but it's the other way around. Men and women are affected with the same severity but women are more likely to develop it. ( or at least that's what I understood from bradjohnson's comment).
      - mattkrause 6y ago
        No, I don't think that's a correct interpretation: if women are more likely to develop it, then the prevalence isn't equal. Affect and prevalence just focus on rates, not severity. I can only see two ways to make both statements consistent: - Men and women are both likely to have an general 'diagnosis' of imposter syndrome, but women experience more 'acute attacks' of it per unit time. Half of of men and women feel like imposters during a year, but the affected women feel that way twice a week, while the affected men feel it once/week. - Women experience it more severely than men: a male colonel feels like a lt. colonel, but a female colonel feels like a major) Could be some combination of the two...or the writing is just a mess!

mprovost 6y ago

See also https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning%E2%80%93Kruger_effect