9 ms·
Nice, but I bet nobody is currently able to write there a proof for $\Re(s) = \frac{1}{2}$ for all s where $\zeta(s) = 0$ and $0 < \Re(s) < 1$ .. I mean, wh
by mykhal 11y ago
Nice, but I bet nobody is currently able to write there a proof for
$\Re(s) = \frac{1}{2}$ for all s where $\zeta(s) = 0$ and $0 < \Re(s) < 1$
.. I mean, where zeta is the Riemann's one :)
- natsci 11y agodon't be sad. how can one appreciate your comment, if he can't even recognize the meaning of the formulae at the hackchat homepage?