I've been reading some overviews - I'm already disturbed. The assumption is that the difference in response times between the association of categories reveals

I've been reading some overviews - I'm already disturbed. The assumption is that the difference in response times between the association of categories reveals preferences. And they tested by using groups that were expected beforehand to have certain preferences (boys liking insects more than flowers and vice versa for girls correlated with their reaction times). But when faced with circumstances where these reactions DON'T correlate with self-reports, the conclusion is that the test reveals unconscious biases. If they confirmed their hypothesis about reaction times with groups that correlated - what entitles them to infer this further variable of unconscious bias to defend their hypothesis where the correlation fails? Uggh... I can see it's going to take an enormous amount of time to find in the enormous literature a decent answer to this question. I can't be bothered.