7 ms·
No, they are the same thing. What this sentence is referring to is the vanishing of the Jacobian determinant [1] (which is defined using the derivatives of the
by ansjmels 12y ago
No, they are the same thing. What this sentence is referring to is the vanishing of the Jacobian determinant [1] (which is defined using the derivatives of the defining equations).
A simple example is the equations y^3 - x^2 = 0. This is a "cusp" (use wolfram alpha to see what it looks like) and has a singularity at the origin.
The jacobian is the matrix:
[ -2x, 3y^2 ]
This has rank 1 unless x and y are zero in which case it has rank zero. The fact that the rank is less than 1 indicates a singularity.
[1]: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singularity_(mathematics)#Algebraic_geometry_and_commutative_algebra http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singularity_(mathematics)#Algeb...
- MrMeker 12y agoThis seems to explain the sentence. Thank you, now I have something to read about for the next few hours.