I don't understand how you claim that your sense of objective morality is on the same footing as utility of the senses and the fundamental correctness of human

I don't understand how you claim that your sense of objective morality is on the same footing as utility of the senses and the fundamental correctness of human reason in terms of accepting them as a foundation for reasonable argument. humans from different cultures will sense many things the same way. a small black dot will be a small black dot and so forth. likewise, i can believe that ancient japan would have invented a computer if given sufficient time in some alternate reality. once the appropriate questions had been asked and answered of course. I don't see the same thing for morality though. Or at least not to anywhere near the same degree.