I don't understand how they can say it's unlikely. It's objectively true that they train on de-identified user data (https://openai.com/policies/how-your-data-i

I don't understand how they can say it's unlikely. It's objectively true that they train on de-identified user data (https://openai.com/policies/how-your-data-is-used-to-improve-model-performance/ https://openai.com/policies/how-your-data-is-used-to-improve...), and objectively true that they encourage users to submit such data (the setting is on by default). Since it's de-identified I can believe that they can't give a straight yes or no answer here, but it seems more likely than not that at least some amount of his usage became training data. It takes an unusual level of awareness and effort for a user to ensure that all usage is opted out.