8 ms·

What would you count as sufficient evidence of genocidal intent, then?

• jameshilliard 1mo ago
  In terms of an individual or a state itself?
  • manyaoman 1mo ago
    The state of Israel.
    • jameshilliard 1mo ago
      > The state of Israel. Just as an example hypothetical, if there were evidence that the Israeli government was implementing as a clear matter of top down government policy the deliberate extermination/targeting of Palestinian civilians with no plausible military/security justification then that would probably be considered genocidal intent by a state. I think such a policy would also then have to be successfully implemented for it to be considered an actual genocide. Merely being say careless when it comes to civilian casualties in a war would not reach the bar of genocide by itself(although that could still be a war crime). The evidence I've seen so far indicates Israel operates with reasonable care to avoid civilian casualties where feasible(similar if not better than United States when say the United States fought ISIS). Genocide in international law is an extremely high bar. Wars(even ones with many war crimes) generally do not reach that threshold.
      • forestrywat 1mo ago
        Where do you fall on "Will no one rid me of this turbulent priest?" ? Israel saying things, the thing happening, but no clear orders from the top.