Because I didn't see a better place to comment and I value your response: When should it be considered acceptable for a victim to mimic their aggressor's behav

Because I didn't see a better place to comment and I value your response: When should it be considered acceptable for a victim to mimic their aggressor's behavior (especially when it is similar behavior that caused the victimization to begin with)? Disclaimer: I'm trying to understand and not support to any of the GP comments.