5 ms·
The set of computable numbers is actually countable (see ref. linked above). It has to be by definition because the set of finite computer-programs is itself co
by akssri 1y ago
The set of computable numbers is actually countable (see ref. linked above). It has to be by definition because the set of finite computer-programs is itself countable.
This is the whole point of the un-reality of "real" numbers: "all" of it (= measure 1) is uncomputable except a "tiny" measure-0 set.