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False, it's simply a requirement. French law explicitly states that a candidate for an election must not be ineligible by reason of criminal conviction or judi
by eclecticfrank 1y ago
False, it's simply a requirement.
French law explicitly states that a candidate for an election must not be ineligible by reason of criminal conviction or judicial decision.
Should have thought about messing with EU funds before, I suppose.
- tick_tock_tick 1y ago> French law explicitly states that a candidate for an election must not be ineligible by reason of criminal conviction or judicial decision. Then French law needs to change; it's simply a requirement.
- OKRainbowKid 1y agoBecause some people on HN who most likely are neither French nor lawyers say so?