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Yes, it's also a wealth transfer, and slaveholders (other than in DC) were not compensated. If you're ignoring that huge economic event in your analysis of the
by Hasu 2y ago
Yes, it's also a wealth transfer, and slaveholders (other than in DC) were not compensated.
If you're ignoring that huge economic event in your analysis of the economics of the latter half of the 19th century, trying to replicate it today is going to be very rough.
Given your other replies in this thread, you're not interested in arguing honestly and I'm not going to continue engaging.
- ty6853 2y agoThe involuntary wealth transfer of slavery was from slaves to the rich, not the other way around. Framing it as the slaves taking from the rich when they stopped being slaves by no longer providing free labor is monumentally disingenuous, and I don't think you really believe that.