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Achar is not a Persian loan word in Hindi. Just because it's similar to the Persian word doesn't mean it's a loan word. Ancient Persian (Avestan) and Sanskrit w

Achar is not a Persian loan word in Hindi. Just because it's similar to the Persian word doesn't mean it's a loan word. Ancient Persian (Avestan) and Sanskrit were extremely similar to each other (basically the same language). So there are many old concepts and ideas that have the same words in the two languages. Achar is one of them, it's possibly a much older word.

danans 3y ago
What is the Indo-Iranian etymology you are proposing? There is no attested word "achaara" referring to a pickle in any Sanskrit dictionary I know of (I just checked several). The standard Sanskrit words for pickle have very clear analyses, i.e. avaleha ("licked down"). A similar analysis of "achaara" in Sanskrit would lead to a nonsense meaning of "not-moving". Whereas, there is a clearly related Persian word "achaar" for a similarly preserved food, which apparently doesn't appear in any Indian texts prior to Mughal rule of South Asia. Even if there were a shared Avestan/Sanskrit antecedent, many words that share a common ancestor in those languages got re-borrowed in their Persian form into Hindi during Mughal rule. For example, the common Hindi word "garam", meaning hot, is a direct borrowing from Persian "garm". It replaced a related word for hot/heat from Sanskrit: "gharma" (the loss of original aspiration on the "g" is a feature of Persian). Both words share the same origin, but the Persian version is the one used across South Asia today. Similarly, Hindi "chaador" meaning "blanket", is a Persian borrowing that also has a Sanskrit cognate "chhaadana" meaning "cover".
- fuzztester 3y ago
  >any Sanskrit dictionary I know of (I just checked several) What are those Sanskrit dictionaries you checked? I'm not saying you are wrong, I just want Sanskrit resources, since I know it some and am interested in it.
  - danans 3y ago
    > What are those Sanskrit dictionaries you checked? I like the Cologne Digital Sanskrit Dictionaries site, which hosts several different dictionaries and has a powerful search interface. https://www.sanskrit-lexicon.uni-koeln.de/ https://www.sanskrit-lexicon.uni-koeln.de/
    - fuzztester 3y ago
      Thanks, sounds good, will check it.
- fuzztester 3y ago
  >A similar analysis of "achaara" in Sanskrit would lead to a nonsense meaning of "not-moving". I think "non-moving" in Sanskrit should be "achara", not "achaara", i.e. a short "a" sound, not a long one, for the second syllable. Similar to the word ”nishaachara" which means "night-moving”, referring to demons. I studied Sanskrit for 5 years total in school and college, so although I am somewhat rusty now, I think what I said is right.
  - danans 3y ago
    > I think "non-moving" in Sanskrit should be "achara", not "achaara", i.e. a short "a" sound, not a long one, for the second syllable. Thanks for the correction. Yes, "achaara" is non moving. "achara" simply doesn't exist AFAICT, so my point stands that it's a Persian borrowing, not a Sanskrit derivative.
    - fuzztester 3y ago
      >Thanks for the correction. Welcome. But you switched them around below in your reply, compared to what I said above: >Yes, "achaara" is non moving. "achara" simply doesn't exist AFAICT, so my point stands that it's a Persian borrowing, not a Sanskrit derivative. And regarding words that "don't exist": in Sanskrit, anyone can make up words, by combining other existing words, as I think (but am not sure) is the case in German. Both Sanskrit poets and prose writers often do, but literally anyone can, including you and me, as long as the rules for making words up are followed. I don't have a citation for this, but interested people can look it up somewhere.
      - danans 3y ago
        > compared to what I said above Oops, well your comment will be the decoder then! > And regarding words that "don't exist": in Sanskrit, anyone can make up words, by combining other existing words, as I think (but am not sure) is the case in German. You are thinking of compounds. Compounds are words that are composed (sometimes in realtime) of two or more independent words. There are several classes of these categorized by their function. English also has such compounds, how it depicts them differently in writing, so we're not used to thinking of them as such. Nonetheless, the presence of the realtime compounding mechanism does not show that the Hindi word "achaar" was not borrowed from medieval Persian, unless it can somehow be attested at an earlier time in Sanskrit, which it hasn't been. Furthermore, a real-time made-up compound "achaar" wouldn't make any sense by any of the Sanskrit compounding rules.
- 19f191ty 3y ago
  I am not proposing any etymology. Just wanted to point that achar is not a loan word from Persian. It's not even the primary word for pickle in Persian actually (achar also means pickle but it sounds very odd in Persian, not an everyday word for pickle). That's what ticked me off about OP's comment. Pickle in Farsi is Torshi, especially in the Farsi that Mughals spoke (central Asian dialects). Afghans still call pickles torshi and not achar. On the other hand, my Nepali friends call their traditional pickles achar, and they have near zero Perso-Arabic influence in their vocabulary. In summary, there is no evidence that achar was a word brought in by the Mughals. I couldn't find the etymology for achar, but I found references to classical Persian (Avestan) and Proto-Indo-Iranian. Apparently Ayurveda mentions achar, so it's possible that at some point there was a distinction between medicinal pickles and popular everyday pickles. Nobody knows of course, but to me it's likely that achar has ancient origins, possibly in old Indus Valley or Gangetic Plains. In either case, history of pickle in Indian subcontinent and words used to describe isn't as simple as a loan word.
  - danans 3y ago
    > That's what ticked me off about OP's comment. Pickle in Farsi is Torshi, especially in the Farsi that Mughals spoke (central Asian dialects). Afghans still call pickles torshi and not achar. Words shift usage all the time. Especially in multi-linguistic scenarios, adaptation of terms is very common. Also, loan words often preserve archaisms. You see this quite clearly in the use of archaic Sanskrit borrowings in languages like Tamil or Malayalam when the same word has been lost in Hindi. > I couldn't find the etymology for achar, but I found references to classical Persian (Avestan) and Proto-Indo-Iranian. Apparently Ayurveda mentions achar, so it's possible that at some point there was a distinction between medicinal pickles and popular everyday pickles. Please share the credible original date-attested Ayurveda text sources that unequivocally demonstrate the occurrence of that word prior to the influence of the later Persian language. Avestan alone is insufficient evidence because despite its similarities to Sanskrit, still has many lexical differences, and the presence of a word in Avestan doesn't immediately imply it's presence in Sanskrit. Also, The Sanskrit sources contemporary with Avestan are in Vedic Sanskrit, which lacks that word. Ayurveda texts are much younger, and are composed in Classical Sanskrit. Also consider that borrowings occured even in ancient times (i.e. the word "kendra" meaning "center" is a direct borrowing from Greek into Sanskrit). Lateral transmission of vocabulary is as old as humanity. > In either case, history of pickle in Indian subcontinent and words used to describe isn't as simple as a loan word. I never questioned the history of the Indian food or the multitude of other words used in contemporary Indian languages. I'm only addressing the claim that the word "achaar" isn't a borrowing.
schoen 3y ago
The concept you're describing is a "cognate". https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cognate https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cognate

danans 3y ago

What is the Indo-Iranian etymology you are proposing? There is no attested word "achaara" referring to a pickle in any Sanskrit dictionary I know of (I just checked several). The standard Sanskrit words for pickle have very clear analyses, i.e. avaleha ("licked down"). A similar analysis of "achaara" in Sanskrit would lead to a nonsense meaning of "not-moving". Whereas, there is a clearly related Persian word "achaar" for a similarly preserved food, which apparently doesn't appear in any Indian texts prior to Mughal rule of South Asia. Even if there were a shared Avestan/Sanskrit antecedent, many words that share a common ancestor in those languages got re-borrowed in their Persian form into Hindi during Mughal rule. For example, the common Hindi word "garam", meaning hot, is a direct borrowing from Persian "garm". It replaced a related word for hot/heat from Sanskrit: "gharma" (the loss of original aspiration on the "g" is a feature of Persian). Both words share the same origin, but the Persian version is the one used across South Asia today. Similarly, Hindi "chaador" meaning "blanket", is a Persian borrowing that also has a Sanskrit cognate "chhaadana" meaning "cover".

fuzztester 3y ago
>any Sanskrit dictionary I know of (I just checked several) What are those Sanskrit dictionaries you checked? I'm not saying you are wrong, I just want Sanskrit resources, since I know it some and am interested in it.
- danans 3y ago
  > What are those Sanskrit dictionaries you checked? I like the Cologne Digital Sanskrit Dictionaries site, which hosts several different dictionaries and has a powerful search interface. https://www.sanskrit-lexicon.uni-koeln.de/ https://www.sanskrit-lexicon.uni-koeln.de/
  - fuzztester 3y ago
    Thanks, sounds good, will check it.
fuzztester 3y ago
>A similar analysis of "achaara" in Sanskrit would lead to a nonsense meaning of "not-moving". I think "non-moving" in Sanskrit should be "achara", not "achaara", i.e. a short "a" sound, not a long one, for the second syllable. Similar to the word ”nishaachara" which means "night-moving”, referring to demons. I studied Sanskrit for 5 years total in school and college, so although I am somewhat rusty now, I think what I said is right.
- danans 3y ago
  > I think "non-moving" in Sanskrit should be "achara", not "achaara", i.e. a short "a" sound, not a long one, for the second syllable. Thanks for the correction. Yes, "achaara" is non moving. "achara" simply doesn't exist AFAICT, so my point stands that it's a Persian borrowing, not a Sanskrit derivative.
  - fuzztester 3y ago
    >Thanks for the correction. Welcome. But you switched them around below in your reply, compared to what I said above: >Yes, "achaara" is non moving. "achara" simply doesn't exist AFAICT, so my point stands that it's a Persian borrowing, not a Sanskrit derivative. And regarding words that "don't exist": in Sanskrit, anyone can make up words, by combining other existing words, as I think (but am not sure) is the case in German. Both Sanskrit poets and prose writers often do, but literally anyone can, including you and me, as long as the rules for making words up are followed. I don't have a citation for this, but interested people can look it up somewhere.
    - danans 3y ago
      > compared to what I said above Oops, well your comment will be the decoder then! > And regarding words that "don't exist": in Sanskrit, anyone can make up words, by combining other existing words, as I think (but am not sure) is the case in German. You are thinking of compounds. Compounds are words that are composed (sometimes in realtime) of two or more independent words. There are several classes of these categorized by their function. English also has such compounds, how it depicts them differently in writing, so we're not used to thinking of them as such. Nonetheless, the presence of the realtime compounding mechanism does not show that the Hindi word "achaar" was not borrowed from medieval Persian, unless it can somehow be attested at an earlier time in Sanskrit, which it hasn't been. Furthermore, a real-time made-up compound "achaar" wouldn't make any sense by any of the Sanskrit compounding rules.
19f191ty 3y ago
I am not proposing any etymology. Just wanted to point that achar is not a loan word from Persian. It's not even the primary word for pickle in Persian actually (achar also means pickle but it sounds very odd in Persian, not an everyday word for pickle). That's what ticked me off about OP's comment. Pickle in Farsi is Torshi, especially in the Farsi that Mughals spoke (central Asian dialects). Afghans still call pickles torshi and not achar. On the other hand, my Nepali friends call their traditional pickles achar, and they have near zero Perso-Arabic influence in their vocabulary. In summary, there is no evidence that achar was a word brought in by the Mughals. I couldn't find the etymology for achar, but I found references to classical Persian (Avestan) and Proto-Indo-Iranian. Apparently Ayurveda mentions achar, so it's possible that at some point there was a distinction between medicinal pickles and popular everyday pickles. Nobody knows of course, but to me it's likely that achar has ancient origins, possibly in old Indus Valley or Gangetic Plains. In either case, history of pickle in Indian subcontinent and words used to describe isn't as simple as a loan word.
- danans 3y ago
  > That's what ticked me off about OP's comment. Pickle in Farsi is Torshi, especially in the Farsi that Mughals spoke (central Asian dialects). Afghans still call pickles torshi and not achar. Words shift usage all the time. Especially in multi-linguistic scenarios, adaptation of terms is very common. Also, loan words often preserve archaisms. You see this quite clearly in the use of archaic Sanskrit borrowings in languages like Tamil or Malayalam when the same word has been lost in Hindi. > I couldn't find the etymology for achar, but I found references to classical Persian (Avestan) and Proto-Indo-Iranian. Apparently Ayurveda mentions achar, so it's possible that at some point there was a distinction between medicinal pickles and popular everyday pickles. Please share the credible original date-attested Ayurveda text sources that unequivocally demonstrate the occurrence of that word prior to the influence of the later Persian language. Avestan alone is insufficient evidence because despite its similarities to Sanskrit, still has many lexical differences, and the presence of a word in Avestan doesn't immediately imply it's presence in Sanskrit. Also, The Sanskrit sources contemporary with Avestan are in Vedic Sanskrit, which lacks that word. Ayurveda texts are much younger, and are composed in Classical Sanskrit. Also consider that borrowings occured even in ancient times (i.e. the word "kendra" meaning "center" is a direct borrowing from Greek into Sanskrit). Lateral transmission of vocabulary is as old as humanity. > In either case, history of pickle in Indian subcontinent and words used to describe isn't as simple as a loan word. I never questioned the history of the Indian food or the multitude of other words used in contemporary Indian languages. I'm only addressing the claim that the word "achaar" isn't a borrowing.

schoen 3y ago

The concept you're describing is a "cognate". https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cognate https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cognate