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Yes, absolutely. Using one‘s likeness without explicit consent first is illegal in (most of?) Europe and is a tricky subject in the US. For example look at Cris
by newonhere 3y ago
Yes, absolutely. Using one‘s likeness without explicit consent first is illegal in (most of?) Europe and is a tricky subject in the US. For example look at Crispin Glover‘s lawsuit against Back to the Future II.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Personality_rights https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Personality_rights
- eganist 3y agoTo be clear, I'm looking for references to criminal law, not civil or case law. This all seems a combination of the latter, and even here it's not obvious what applies in cases where a third party produces the infringing content.
- newonhere 3y agoI am not a lawyer. I had to briefly look up the difference between criminal law and case law to see what you mean. I have no idea if there are any criminal cases in the US about this. In Civil Law countries as opposed to Common Law countries the plaintiff could very well be the state for this type of legislation. For example, look at tech companies being fined for GDPR violations, same basic idea.