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Actually, the probability that all decks ever shuffled are unique is also very high. We can approximate the probability that any two of the n decks shuffled in
by jgershen 15y ago
Actually, the probability that all decks ever shuffled are unique is also very high. We can approximate the probability that any two of the n decks shuffled in human history were identical as p=1-n^2/52!
Using the same estimate as the OP for n (1.56x10^23) gives p=3.02x10^-22. Still fantastically low.
- sliverstorm 15y agoAlright, fine, it is comparatively lower. Better? :)
- gregable 15y agoNice, I came to the comments to see if someone knew how to calculate this. Related question. If there are exactly 2N people who vote in a binary election (ie: for presidential candidates) and they have an even 50/50% chance of voting either way, how do I compute the odds that they will have a even split? This is a generous estimate for the probability my vote will matter.
- flourpower 15y agoThat's the same as the probability that 2N flips of a fair coin result in exactly heads: (2N choose N)(.5^N)(.5^N). Check out: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_distribution http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_distribution
- wnoise 15y agoThe exact answer is (2n choose n) * (1/2)^(2n). This is approximately sqrt(1/Pi n) as n grows large, with error O(n^(-3/2))
- JadeNB 15y ago> We can approximate the probability that any two of the n decks shuffled in human history were identical as p=1-n^2/52! I think that this is way too low. Shouldn't it be the quite large number 1 - \prod_{i = 1}^n (1 - (i - 1)/52!) (a la the birthday paradox)?
- JadeNB 15y agoSorry, I was thinking of the complementary probability (that there has been a coincidence). Mathematica overflowed when I tried to compute this by brute force. The next best thing I can think of is to use the exponential approximation 1 - x ≈ e^{-x}, good for very small `x`, such as ours. Ignoring the cascading errors gives \prod_{i = 1}^n (1 - (i - 1)/52!) ≈ \prod_{i = 1}^n e^{-(i - 1)/52!} = e^{-n(n - 1)/52!} ≈ 1 - n(n - 1)/52!. The error should be roughly of the size \frac1 2\sum_{i = 1}^n [(i - 1)/52!]^2 ≈ n^3/(2(52!)^2), which is relatively small. (That's stronger, here, than just saying that it is small.) That is to say: I guess I agree with jgershen after all!