8 ms·
P = NP only if N is invariant over P and non zero. I don’t get why there’s so much commotion on it
by throwra620 5y ago
P = NP only if N is invariant over P and non zero. I don’t get why there’s so much commotion on it
- nomel 5y agoThere's $1,000,000 waiting for you [1], if you can prove that. 1. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Millennium_Prize_Problems#P_versus_NP https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Millennium_Prize_Problems#P_ve...
- mcswell 5y agoMy proof is too big for the margins of this window. Guess it's time to get a larger monitor...
- paskozdilar 5y agoI think the original poster was trying to make a more sophisticated version of the classic "P=NP iff P=0 or N=1" joke.
- xiphias2 5y agoIt doesn't sound sophisticated as it doesn't take P=N=0 into account for example. Yours is much better :)
- throwthere 5y agoI think this thread has room for 512 characters of jokes. So far we can fit both of those meeting that constraint so no need to choose favorites.
- evanb 5y agoTrue. But also P!=NP if N = (P-1)!