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Yes. To suggest otherwise is to insist that cuisine (or any other tradition) must be somehow frozen at a specific point in history in order to be "authentic".
by frobozz 5y ago
Yes. To suggest otherwise is to insist that cuisine (or any other tradition) must be somehow frozen at a specific point in history in order to be "authentic".
Even if that is an acceptable assertion, what would be that specific point? Does a British recipe have to predate the Romans to be traditional?
- gherkinnn 5y agoOne point is that the post-Colombian shift in native american cuisines is linked to cultural trauma. And in some cases it wasn’t that long ago. So I understand the desire to rediscover pre-contact food. Or so I would imagine. I know little about this topic.
- frobozz 5y agoAbsolutely. What I mean is that we can't declare something "inauthentic" just because it was invented after a certain time or event.