8 ms·
No. Once his own costs reached a limit where he had to settle, the other side would have had similar if not greater legal costs racked up. Continuing at that
by akronim 15y ago
No. Once his own costs reached a limit where he had to settle, the other side would have had similar if not greater legal costs racked up. Continuing at that point is a double or nothing bet, which might make sense if the odds are in your favour (i.e. you think you'll win) and you can diversify over many such bets. But for a single individual in a single case, it's a huge risk.
- afterburner 15y agoThe other side was rich. The defendant was not. Don't you think that makes a difference? They weren't on equal footing, that's the whole point.