5 ms·
Yes, if I remember correctly, any n-ary number system is equivalent and you can translate any proof between them. It's just easier to work in one or another sys
by lambda_obrien 6y ago
Yes, if I remember correctly, any n-ary number system is equivalent and you can translate any proof between them. It's just easier to work in one or another system.
- tgb 6y agop-adic is quite different though. It's not really that relevant to this conversation though as far as I can tell as it's not just about representing the integers or rationals in a different way. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/P-adic_number https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/P-adic_number