5 ms·

I have also seen this example, where a man blinded by strokes still avoids obstacles and recognizes emotions, without any conscious awareness[1]. Is this the sa

• deleted 6y ago
  [deleted]
• namenotrequired 6y ago
  It is the phenomenon called blindsight, mentioned in this article. (Edit: but not explained, so your question is reasonable)
  • tyingq 6y ago
    For reference, from the article: "Sara Ajina, a neuroscientist at the University of Oxford who studies visual awareness deficits such as blindsight—a residual, unconscious “sight” in people with damage to the brain’s visual system..."
  • au8er 6y ago
    From what I recall in my neuroscience class, this is likely to be caused by damage to the visual cortex, which is used to consciously process visual information, but not the superior colliculi, which is used to unconsciously process peripheral vision. This is caused by damage to one of the visual processing regions but not others. From the article, it appears something similar has happened. Corticobasal syndrome potentially killed off some brain cells but not others, leading to damage at some areas but not others.
• nabla9 6y ago
  That's called blindsight. In the published article they say that there is no evidence of blindsight. There is whole paragraph named: "No Evidence of Implicit Knowledge Found with Discrimination Tasks." >Furthermore, we showed that he exhibited chance-level accuracy on two-choice discrimination tasks for these distorted stimuli, suggesting that his deficit did not spare the sorts of implicit knowledge sometimes found in other deficits of visual awareness
  • adam12 6y ago
    Damn, I read your first sentence as "That's called bullshit". I wonder how much of the world I am accurately seeing.
• EamonnMR 6y ago
  Never forget the possibility of a conversion disorder: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conversion_disorder https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conversion_disorder