5 ms·
Nope. If the government fooled the magistrate, it is disallowed. However if the magistrate has failed to decode the law correctly and issued an unlawful or unco
by bureaucrat 7y ago
Nope. If the government fooled the magistrate, it is disallowed. However if the magistrate has failed to decode the law correctly and issued an unlawful or unconstitutional warrant, the evidence obtained by the warrant can be used in court.