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Because Congress' intentions are taken into account only after the actual text, and most of the time not at all (or they would have written their intentions cle

by mikecb 9y ago

Because Congress' intentions are taken into account only after the actual text, and most of the time not at all (or they would have written their intentions clearly within the enforceable provisions.)

bluetwo 9y ago
I disagree.
- tptacek 9y ago
  That wasn't a statement of opinion.
  - bluetwo 9y ago
    I still disagree.
non_sequitur 9y ago
This is actually incorrect. Courts including the Supreme Court will take into account "legislative intent" when interpreting a law. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legislative_intent https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legislative_intent
- tptacek 9y ago
  You just said the same thing he did, added a Wikipedia link, and called him incorrect. There should be a name for this. A "triple HN" or something.
  - tyingq 9y ago
    pedaHNtic²?
    - bluetwo 9y ago
      Well that's the pot calling the kettle black.
      - tyingq 9y ago
        That's why it's funny. Don't mind a little self depreciation. We're a bit self-important here and could use a little humility.
  - nl 9y ago
    The irony of the "non_sequitur" user missing the logical clause sequences and saying it was incorrect is quite amusing.