6 ms·
if you claim that O(cn) and O(n) are different classes then changing the meaning is exactly what you are doing. i think what you are missing is that in mathemat
by hc 16y ago
if you claim that O(cn) and O(n) are different classes then changing the meaning is exactly what you are doing. i think what you are missing is that in mathematics, the meaning of a concept is principally derived from its formal mathematical definition (in this case the one jacobolus supplied you with above, from which it is a trivial exercise to prove f(n)=O(n) iff f(n)=O(cn)), not other things
- carbocation 16y agoDo you dispute the core of my argument, or are you principally interested in this particular semantic diversion? If the latter, do you feel that it actually helps answer the original poster's question? If the former, then what more do you feel that you have to gain by continuing along this line of argumentation, since I've already stated my agreement above?
- jules 16y agoLook, O-notation has a precise mathematical definition. So the question whether O(cn) = O(n) has a precise answer, independent of whether the answer happens to be helpful or practical. The answer is "yes". A proof can be found on wikipedia. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_O_notation http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_O_notation