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If you take money from individual A put it into a common pot and then give it to individual B then individual B is effectively getting individual A's money.
by 201709User 9y ago
If you take money from individual A put it into a common pot and then give it to individual B then individual B is effectively getting individual A's money.
- bmsleight_ 9y agoWithout society, individual A would not be able to earn same higher amount of money.
- phaemon 9y ago> If you take money from individual A Like I take money from the company I work for, in payment for my services... > put it into a common pot I put it in my bank account... > and then give it to individual B I buy something from Amazon, say... > then individual B is effectively getting individual A's money. Then Amazon is getting my companies money? Erm, no. Once it's been paid to me, it's my money. That's how payment works. When you pay for a society's services, that money is no longer yours. If you're a member of that society you still get a say in how it's spent (not always the case: you might be from another society and just paying for market access) but it's not your money any more.
- 201709User 9y agoThe company has a choice of not employing you though and it tells you exactly what work to do. Now if you force the company to pay, then yes your example confirms my statement.
- phaemon 9y agoYou have a choice not to use that society's services. If I did work for the company and then they refused to pay me, then yes, I would force them to pay. I would use the law to force them to pay.