5 ms·
Can someone explain why the random_split (i.e. first) rule tends towards inequality? It seems that any time a rich&poor person meet, the expected outcome is tha
by phunge 11y ago
Can someone explain why the random_split (i.e. first) rule tends towards inequality? It seems that any time a rich&poor person meet, the expected outcome is that the poor person receives money -- E(Uniform(0, X+Y)) = (X+Y)/2 > min(X,Y). So how does that lead to a rich-get-richer effect?
- bendykstra 11y agoIf the pot is split at an random point between 0 and 1, then on average, 75% will go to one player and 25% to the other player. (It doesn't matter which player is which or how many points the players began the round with.) The equilibrium is a state in which the average pairing between two players is unequal in this 75/25 ratio.
- deleted 11y ago[deleted]