I'm afraid you'll have to explain your perspective to me as if I'm five years old. In your original comment, you say, >a constant times the $-e_r/r^2$, and the

I'm afraid you'll have to explain your perspective to me as if I'm five years old. In your original comment, you say, >a constant times the $-e_r/r^2$, and the time derivative of that is definitely not zero. I don't see a term there that is time-dependent.